![]() “Love Me Do” launched The Beatles’ journey to unparalleled worldwide success and acclaim that continues to this day. For the first time, the iconic song has been de-mixed using machine aided learning and remixed in true stereo. SIDE B: The song that started it all, “Love Me Do” was The Beatles’ first UK single in 1962. Amazon Exclusive White Vinyl (2 LP) On hand and ready to ship. How to order the Adele 30 original and limited edition vinyl albums. Produced by Paul and Giles Martin, “Now And Then” is the last song recorded by all four Beatles, a powerful and fitting finale for the band’s timeless recordings. Buy 30 - Adele (White Vinyl) in Paranaque City,Philippines. ![]() With John’s voice now pristine in the mix, “Now And Then” features elements from the 1995 sessions including George Harrison’s guitar parts, and vocal and instrumental parts recorded by Paul McCartney and Ringo Starr in 2022, along with a new arrangement for strings. SIDE A: “Now And Then” is the last Beatles song, written and demoed by John Lennon in the mid/late 1970s. NOVEMBER 10: Back to the record store for the Expanded Editions (featuring 21 new tracks including "Now and Then") of the Red and Blue albums 14 (8:30-10:31 PM, ET/8:00-10:01 PM, PT) on the CBS Television Network, and available to stream live and on demand. NOVEMBER 3: Head to the record store for the double-A-side single on several 7" and 12" formats ( indie record stores are the only place you can walk into and buy the blue and white marble version) ADELE ONE NIGHT ONLY, a new primetime special that will be broadcast Sunday, Nov. NOVEMBER 2: Listen to the premiere of historic new music from The Beatles in 2023: "Now and Then" Adele 30 LP Vinyl 30 is the fourth studio album by English singer-songwriter Adele, released on 19 November 2021 by Melted Stone and Columbia Records. NOVEMBER 1: Watch the premiere of the short documentary about making "Now and Then", directed by Peter Jackson 30 is the name of the long-awaited fourth studio album by British singer-songwriter, Adele, released on November 19, 2021. ![]() Available on several 7" and 12" single formats starting November 3 at indie record stores (and record stores are the only place you can walk in and buy the blue and white marble 12" version!) ![]() white pants, blue shirt and white jacket, he stood beside Henry, who was. Adele - 30 37. There appears to be over 100 records on the rack.The Beatles’ double-A-side single for “Now And Then” and “Love Me Do” pairs the last Beatles song with the band’s first UK single. When Elizabeth and the children returned. In a tweet that has racked up over 2 million views since it was shared on March 13, a Twitter user wrote, “Imagine ruining the manufacturing process of vinyl for a full year just to end up at goodwill because you didn’t realize there was no market for your music on vinyl.” Accompanying that are photos of sealed 30 LPs apparently for sale at a Goodwill thrift store, priced for $9.99 each. Still, it appears that according to one person’s thrift store trip, demand for the album on vinyl was at least somewhat overestimated. Whatever the case, there was clearly a lot of interest in the album, as 30 was the year’s best-selling album on vinyl, even though it was only released that November. 1994 Electronic, Minimal Techno Vinyl, 12', Promo, White Label 2 copies from 341. Later reports said this probably wasn’t her fault, though, as the 30 LPs Adele had pressed only made up an estimated 0.3 percent of the total vinyl produced in 2021. 1 on the Billboard 200 albums chart, debuting with the largest week of 2021 for any album, while the set is already the. The singer apparently turned in her album 30 months early to get a headstart on the vinyl production process, and reports indicated this prevented smaller artists from getting their records pressed. Towards the end of 2021, Adele became a bit of a villain in the vinyl community.
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![]() When an allegation has been made that a student has violated the Interim CSU Policy Prohibiting Discrimination, Harassment, Sexual Misconduct, Sexual Exploitation, Dating Violence, Domestic Violence, Stalking, and Retaliation, Revised December 24, 2021, or any of the Standards for Student Conduct (Title 5, section 41301 of the California Code of Regulations), and the student is under inquiry and/or investigation or a sanction has been applied for a violation, degree conferral may be impacted. However, a maximum of 36 quarter units of extension credit may be counted toward the bachelor's degree. 28 units in residence of the last 40 units counted toward the degreeĮxtension credit or credit by examination may not be used to fulfill the residence requirements.18 of the 36 upper division units in residence must be in the major.36 of the 50 units in residence must be upper division.The minimum requirements for units taken in residence at Cal Poly are: ![]() Students must demonstrate competency in writing skills (as described below).Ī senior project is required for all Cal Poly students (as described below). A CSU-mandated minimum of 72 units of GE overall must be completed. Students must complete the GE requirements as indicated in the degree program and shown in the GE section of this catalog. Students must complete the USCP requirement. For a definition of GPA and grade points and units graded, please refer to the Grading section of this catalog. Students must earn at least a 2.000 GPA in all three of the following: 1) all Higher Education units earned (all college-level work), 2) Cal Poly cumulative units earned, and 3) the major (the courses used to meet Major Courses, see the curriculum sheet support courses do not count toward major GPA). Minimum # of major units at 300-400 level Minimum Requirements for Graduation Degree See Evaluation of Transfer Credit for more details. A maximum of 105 units of coursework from community colleges can be applied to the total units required for the degree. NOTE: A maximum of 16 units of internship and cooperative education coursework can be applied to the bachelor's degree. (Title 5, Sections 40500, 40501, 40505, 40507) A minimum of 60 units overall must be upper division (defined as any course completed by the student at the 300- or 400-level this could include transfer work completed at the upper-division level at a four-year institution). Individual baccalaureate degree programs may require more than 180 units. Minimum Requirements for Graduationīaccalaureate degree programs. As they approach graduation, careful attention to the Degree Progress Report will help ensure that they complete degree requirements in a timely fashion. Students are strongly encouraged to access their Degree Progress Report frequently, including after they register each quarter, to verify that courses in which they enrolled are fulfilling requirements as expected. They are also encouraged to address any unanticipated deficiencies in the information shown on their Degree Progress Report, while realizing that recently received substitutions, transfer credit, etc., may not yet be reflected in the Degree Progress Report. Students should plan their degree programs carefully and review them frequently with their advisors. Advice is available from faculty advisors, college advising centers, the Office of the Registrar, and students’ online Degree Progress Reports. Students are responsible for meeting all requirements, and should embrace the responsibility. The specific requirements for each degree program are shown under the academic department offering the major and include a curriculum display with courses listed by Major, Support, Concentration (if applicable), General Education, and Free Electives. Each major has a degree flow chart, which shows the recommended sequence of courses leading to the degree see the "Degree Flowcharts" link at the top of this page. ![]() Students must be formally admitted to the major in which they wish to graduate, and must matriculate, in order to earn a degree. The more students understand their progress toward meeting these requirements and relate them to the many programs available, the better the chance of creating an exciting educational experience and avoiding errors which may delay graduation. There are eight general requirements which all students must meet in order to earn the bachelor's degree from Cal Poly and participate in commencement. Senior Project General Graduation Requirements ![]() ![]() If elegance is what you’re after, go with the ogee edge. This type of countertop edge costs the most compared to all others, due to the added material and labor costs. I’d only install this type of edge with an island that has at least 42″ clearances. Because of the large statement this type of countertop edge makes, you want to ensure you’re putting it in a space that can handle it. A bold choice for a kitchen, if you want to make an island a show-stopping feature, opt for a waterfall edge. Quickly rising to popularity over the last decade, a waterfall edge countertop features “waterfall” edges. If you like the rounder look on the edges, but don’t like how the full bullnose edge makes counters look thinner, try out the half bullnose edge. You know now that a bullnose edge features rounding at the top and bottom, so of course, a half bullnose edge is where the counters are rounded up top and then have a flat bottom. If you’re a fan of the Ogee edge, but find it a too formal, this might be for you. This look is perfect for those seeking a bit of elegance, but not too much. Beveled edge countertopĪ stark departure from a bullnose edge countertop, beveled edge countertops feature a 45 degree angle from the top of the slab. Some people opt for this because they have kids or they need to incorporate the countertop in an area that lacks a huge amount of space. I love how a square edge looks on a large kitchen island! Eased edge countertopĪn eased edge countertop is most closely related to the mitered edge countertop in that it is mostly square minus the fact that the edges are slightly rounded. Many people get squared edges and eased edges confused, but remember, square edges will make that perfect right or left angle, while eased edges will have a slight rounding to them. Making a perfect 90 degree angle, a square edge is a bold choice for a modern kitchen. While other styles will come and go, a classic bullnose edge will stand the test of time. A typical choice for those opting for granite, bullnose edges are also being requested for other countertop materials like quartz, too. One of the most popular styles for quite a while now, a bullnose edge has rounded edges at the top and bottom. Countertop edges: options and recommendations Bullnose edge countertop Free from any round corners, and often confused with an eased edge, a square edge makes a perfect 90 degree angle. Many homeowners want that spacious island and opting for a waterfall edge makes the island a true show stopper.įor a classic, yet modern look that’s easier on the wallet, many homeowners are opting for an square edge. Just like the name implies, a waterfall edge gives the cascading look of a waterfall as the countertops make a 90 degree angle and extend to the floor. Without a doubt, the most modern countertop edge on this list is likely the waterfall edge, with the eased edge coming in at a close second. To help you narrow down the overwhelming list of options, we’ve outlined our favorite countertop edge profiles. What might seem like a trivial detail in the grand scheme of a kitchen or bathroom remodel, choosing a countertop edge that accentuates the overall look and feel you are going for with your remodel or new build is actually a big decision.ĭo you want something timeless or modern? Sleek or elegant? These are all questions you must consider as you countertop edge. Once you’ve gone through the painstaking process of selecting a countertop and backsplash, it’s time to decide which countertop edge is right for you. ![]() Significant differences in activity levels remained among ethnic groups, with those that identified as White British still most likely to be physically active (47.2%), and those that identified as Black (35.5%) or Other (38.5%) least likely to be active. The percentage of children that reported being physically active in 2019 to 2020 ranged from 41.9% in London to 49.4% in the South West.Īll regions, except the North East, reported a decrease in physical activity levels compared with 2018 to 2019, although only the East Midlands reported a statistically significant decrease.īoys (47.1%) continue to be more likely to report achieving recommended physical activity levels than girls (42.7%), although the gap narrowed by 3.2 percentage points (p.p.) in 2019 to 2020, with boys reporting a more notable decrease from 2018 to 2019 (50.6%). ![]() In 2019 to 2020, a statistically significant decrease in physical activity was reported compared with 2018 to 2019 (46.8%), but physical activity levels remain higher than 2017 to 2018 (43.3%). In 2019 to 2020, 44.9% of children and young people in England met the Chief Medical Officers’ ( CMOs) guidelines of taking part in sport and physical activity for an average of 60 minutes or more every day. The percentage of physically active children and young people indicator has been updated and is available at a regional level for England and for various inequality groups. ![]() New children and young people physical activity data for 2019 to 2020 has been added to the Physical Activity tool on the Fingertips platform. ![]() If it's only a single card and is uncovered before players have a chance to look at their other cards, the player who's missing a card takes one from the person with an extra one without looking at it. In that case, it's considered a misdeal and must be corrected. Let's say the dealer botches their job by not distributing the same number of cards to each player. If you don't have time to play a long game, set the winning points to 200. That's because a team that accumulates 10 bags gets 100 points deducted from their score. Overtricks (tricks won over the bid amount) are called "bags," and they're worth one point. If a player is successful with either type, they receive a bonus of 100 points. There's also blind bidding, where players bid without looking at their cards. Nil and Blind BiddingĪ nil bid is when a player declares their intention to not win a single round. However, if you bid seven and only won five tricks, your score is -70. If you bid six and won nine tricks, the score for the round would be 63-60 points for the bid and three points for the overtricks. If your team doesn't make its bid, you lose 10 times your bid's value.įor example, if your team bid four and won four tricks, your score is 40. Overtricks (tricks you win over your bid amount) are worth one point each. If your team meets its bid, you get 10 points for each winning trick. Players can rotate as dealer instead of making the winner of the round the dealer. Whoever wins the round goes first on the next turn and takes over as dealer. If you only have spades in your hand, you can lead with this suit. If players play more than one spade, the winner is the one with the highest-ranking spade. If they can't, they can put any card in play-even if it's a spade. The player going first puts any card except a spade on the table. Unlike other games with bidding, bids don't need to be higher than the last one. Players can't pass, and there's no second round of bidding. Once you make a bid, you can't change your mind. However, spades trump all other cards.īid higher if you're swimming in spades or higher-ranked cards. Total up your and your partner's bids to see how many tricks you must take so you don't lose points.Ī player wins a trick by getting the highest card that matches the suit of the first card that was played. Bids must be between 0 and 13, and the person to the dealer's left gets to go first. The most popular arrangement is by suits.Įach player looks at their hand and bids how many tricks they think they can rack up. The players pick up their cards and arrange them any way they'd like. Once a card leaves a player's hand, they can't undo the move unless they correct their mistake before the next person puts a card down. The deal proceeds in a clockwise fashion. The dealer hands out 13 cards one at a time, starting with the person on the dealer's left. After the dealer thoroughly shuffles the cards, the person sitting to the dealer's right cuts the deck. The person with the high card gets the job. Choose who'll be the dealer by having everyone randomly select a card. Grab a deck of 52 cards and remove the jokers. That's because, in Spades, there are usually two teams with two players on each team. Want to play Spades, a fast, fun, and exciting card game? If so, you'll need to rustle up three more players. Play Spades card game online at Anytime Games for a fast, relaxing, and fun diversion! Spades Rules Briefly Explained Setup ![]() Then he created Avatar which got the technology primed and all these years later we get Alita. I remember reading that Cameron shelved the movie for 20+ years because the technology didn't exist to create the movie. A lot of the heavy CG scenes looked very CG but in scenes with Alita alone she looked insanely good. The amount of work that went into Alita is crazy. ![]() The movie was ok, the original was better. I just finished watching the movie in HDR10 and kept it on Cinema mode since that's the most accurate picture setting. I'm not sure what picture mode it was set to the first night I compared them. I chalk it up to the picture mode I was using or maybe there really was something wrong with the Dolby Vision remux I downloaded. Thanks for checking and on the same TV no less! I checked again earlier today and the Dolby Vision version was closer to the HDR10 this time although still brighter and more washed out looking. This difference could be down to my phone or something else. I know Dolby Vision is better than HDR10 in many ways. I've seen Dolby Vision content on Netflix, the Dolby Vision app, and in official LG/Sony demo videos found online and played from a USB drive. The green color and other details present in the HDR10 version is lost. I don't know why but in the Dolby Vision version the building behind the red structure that says 'Motor' in yellow letters is blown out. In the third image with Alita and the city in the background you can see the biggest difference. I have not watched the movie yet and I may or may not take more pictures. This is not scientific in any way it was just a quick comparison I decided to do. I should have used png or RAW instead of jpg but I forgot to change that on my phone. The S7 Edge is an older phone but the camera is still good. I do not own a DSLR or mirrorless camera. These were taken with a Samsung Galaxy S7 Edge with HDR on. I was tired and I could not get perfect shot for shot comparison images. Panel: LG B7A (2017 model) in Cinema Home picture setting ![]() MP4 supports Dolby Vision but limits audio to AC3. I decided to download 2 versions of the movie for comparison. I've been looking forward to Alita: Battle Angel for a long time since I was a fan of the anime movie. There will be no discussion about piracy or links to pirated content in this post.
![]() If you have large dogs and don't want your floors scratched while still providing them traction then any scratch-proof hard surface flooring probably isn't the way to go even if Shaw markets it as pet-friendly. It's definitely not as slippery as polished hardwood or tile. I've also seen people complain about large dogs having trouble walking on it, but I just have cats who slide around when they get the zoomies just as often as they've done on laminate or tile. So far it works great! It doesn't squeak against the pre-attached pads and it's been quiet to walk on - no issues at all with socks tearing or anything like that. Shaw's warranty is voided if you use anything except the Shaw Bravo underlayment which is a thin closed-cell foam decoupler. I've heard people complain too about it's noise and the pre-attached pads squeaking against underlayments or the subfloor itself. I guess I'll see how it goes but at least there's a 15 year scratch-warranty. If the edges aren't locked in perfectly the surface can chip. He said they lost an entire box to breakage during install - so I'd caution anyone from a DIY install unless you're prepared to buy a few extra boxes and already have a perfectly level subfloor. The installer did tell me that it's a bit of a nightmare to work with as the mineral core is brittle and hard to cut. It really seems bomb-proof once it's installed. I've dragged furniture all over it and there's not a single scratch. At about the same time, Shaw dropped Canal Indigo in favour of Shaw PPV's new French-language "TALC"-branded feeds.I actually had Shaw Prodigy HDR Plus in Hygge installed via Costco last month and I'm frankly very surprised with the negative reviews? By leaps and bounds it's the most realistic wood-look hard surface floor I've seen and people are always suprised when I tell them it's LVP. ![]() This took effect on December 27, 2007, when Shaw Direct dropped the Viewers Choice-branded feeds in favour of feeds with generic "PPV" branding. On March 30, 2006, the CRTC amended the service's licence, allowing it to be distributed nationally, and to carry French-language programming for the first time. In December 2001, the CRTC approved the change in ownership. Soon after the Corus took ownership of the service, in March 2001, Corus announced that it would sell the service to Shaw Communications for $35 million. In July 2000, the CRTC approved the transfer of ownership to Corus. WIC's Viewers Choice service, and most of the company's other specialty and pay television services, were sold to Corus. In late 1999, plans were announced to sell the service's parent company, WIC, and its various assets in parts to Shaw Communications, CanWest Global, and Corus Entertainment. The service later operated under the Viewers Choice name, licensing the name and sharing the same satellite feeds as the similar PPV service operating in Eastern Canada, Viewers Choice, which had launched in late 1991. ![]() In January 1992, Allarcom received CRTC approval for a regional general interest PPV licence serving British Columbia, Alberta, Saskatchewan, Manitoba, Yukon, and the Northwest Territories, replacing the expiring experimental licence as part of the approval, the CRTC mandated that customers could no longer be required to also subscribe to Superchannel. At that time, PPV customers were required to also be subscribers to Allarcom's regional pay TV service, Superchannel (later rebranded as Movie Central). The service was launched later in 1990 under the name Home Theatre. In February 1990, Allarcom Pay Television Limited, a subsidiary of Western International Communications (WIC), was issued a two-year experimental licence by the Canadian Radio-television and Telecommunications Commission (CRTC) for a pay-per-view (PPV) service serving Regina, Saskatoon, and Yorkton, Saskatchewan, under the provisional name "Superchannel Main Event". The French-language channels use the brand TALC ( télé à la carte, or "TV by order"). ![]() Shaw PPV is carried by Shaw Direct, Shaw Cable, and some other providers, mainly (but not exclusively) in Western Canada.Īs the service is carried by a number of cable operators unaffiliated with Shaw, the service uses generic "PPV" branding and avoids references to its ownership on the service itself however some print and Web advertising for PPV programming on Shaw's cable and satellite services does use the name "Shaw Pay Per View". Shaw PPV is a Canadian English and French language pay-per-view service owned by Shaw Pay-Per-View Limited, a division of Shaw Communications. ![]() Related: How To Use Deductive Reasoning 3. I am willing to listen to other viewpoints. I do not allow myself to be influenced by group pressure. I read the instructions first before I operate new equipment. ![]() Examples of agree-or-disagree questions are: You can also assign numbers from one to ten to demonstrate what you agree with or disagree with the most. Some questions may ask you to rank your answer on the least likely to the most likely scale. You can also state that you prefer to remain neutral on the topic. When you get agree-or-disagree types of questions, the interviewer expects you to state if you concur with or believe in the provided statement or whether you do not agree with it. The statements are generally quite simple. ![]() The interviewer may ask you to read a definitive statement and give your opinion about whether it is true or false. True-or-false questions can be useful in all three types of interview assessment tests. ![]() Here are some of the questions that you are likely to get during an interview assessment: 1. Related: Aptitude Test For Career: Definition, Types And Top 12 TestsĮxamples Of Interview Assessment Questions With these assessment tests, the employer can find out if the applicant can handle work-related problems or pick up new required skills. Amongst other things, they may test the candidate's memory, verbal reasoning, logical reasoning, numerical reasoning, sensory perception, spatial ability, problem-solving ability and learning ability. Related: Types Of Skills Assessment Tests (With Tips For Preparing) Cognitive ability testsĮmployers may distribute cognitive ability tests to determine the candidate's innate and learnable mental abilities. Some questions may ask candidates how they would react in specific scenarios to help employers better understand their problem-solving, logic and critical thinking skills. For example, candidates may get questions asking them to describe or evaluate themselves. The tests generally consist of multiple questions to collect insights into each candidate's personal characteristics. The tests, which they source from assessment companies, might check if the candidates are responsible, decisive, detail-oriented, consistent, positive or possess any other traits that the employer requires. That can save them a lot of time and money in the hiring process. Generally, employers decide beforehand what kind of personalities they want to hire and then use the personality tests to screen the candidates. Personality tests help employers determine if the tested candidates have the right character traits to fit in with the company's work culture, get along with their colleagues and thrive in the available role. Depending on the job requirements, candidates may also take technical tests to prove their technical aptitude. The most common ones generally test for verbal, logical reasoning and numerical skills. There are many different types of aptitude tests, and most employers get them from popular assessment companies. The purpose is to assess if they are the right person to complete the required work. The tests evaluate the relevant skills of the candidates, their abilities to develop new competencies and their potential to grow in the available job position. There are three main types of interview assessments that you are likely to encounter in the interviewing process: Aptitude testsĮmployers use aptitude tests to choose between candidates with similar types of educational qualifications and work experiences. Related: A Complete Guide To Career Test Types (With Examples) Types Of Interview Assessments Generally, the interview assessments serve as pre-interview screenings and are common in many larger organisations. Some hiring managers may ask you to explain why you made certain decisions and might ask you to take several tests to learn about your motivations, interests, competency and expertise. Related: What Is The Purpose Of An Interview? How To Prepare For It They may go over some of the information you provided in your resume, such as your educational qualifications, employment history and long-term career goals. The employer may assign their human resources staff and a qualified psychologist to conduct the interview. The purpose of interview assessment questions is to understand your personality and gauge if you are likely to be a good fit for the company. What Is The Purpose Of Interview Assessment Questions? A large crowd of protesters shouted outside the building for the duration of the proceedings. ![]() ![]() While the votes were all held in one day, it was a long five hours of debate in both the House and the Senate before the votes could be tallied. The law would go into effect immediately after the governor signs it. Reynolds is expected to do so Friday, during the Family Leadership Summit at the Community Choice Credit Union Convention Center in Des Moines. The bill is now on its way to the desk of Iowa Governor Kim Reynolds, who has already stated that she would sign the bill into law. The Senate then held their own vote, passing the bill 32-17, by 11 p.m. According to local news outlet KCCI8 Des Moines, the House passed the bill with a vote of 56-34, before sending it to the Senate at 9:00 in the evening. Now, Iowa joins their ranks, passing the bill that will ultimately ban abortion past about six weeks into the pregnancy.īoth the House and Senate stayed late into the night on Tuesday for a special legislative session in which they voted on House File 732. Known as a “fetal heartbeat bill,” similar laws have been passed in Ohio, Georgia, Louisiana, Missouri, Alabama, Kentucky, South Carolina, and Texas. ![]() The Iowa legislature has passed a bill that would limit abortions after a baby’s heartbeat is detected. The governor is expected to sign on Friday. The bill passed the state House and Senate in a special legislative session on Tuesday night. The easiest way to do this in Windows 10 is to open the “run” command box by pressing the Windows key and “R” key, then type ”regedit” and click “OK.” To start, you’ll need to open the registry editor. Because this can damage your Windows 10 installation, you should follow Microsoft’s guide to backing up the registry so you can restore it if there’s an issue. To remove OneDrive from the File Explorer without disabling it completely, you’ll have to edit the Windows registry. ![]() Removing OneDrive From File Explorer With the Registry These will make sure you can get the best cloud storage experience. However, if you want to remove OneDrive because you are having problems using it, make sure to first read our OneDrive review as well as our full articles about what OneDrive is and how you can fix OneDrive sync issues in Windows 10 before you continue with this guide. You will still retain all of the benefits that OneDrive normally provides, including the quick menu available by clicking the OneDrive icon in the system tray. However, if you want to disable OneDrive - or you find that having the program in File Explorer is unnecessary - then you might want to remove Microsoft OneDrive from File Explorer.Īside from losing the quick access to your OneDrive folder, there is no major downside to removing it from the File Explorer. When you first use a Windows 10 device, you’ll find OneDrive is already installed and has added itself to your system’s File Explorer, which makes the service incredibly easy to use. How to Create a Strong Password in 2023: Secure Password Generator & 6 Tips for Strong PasswordsĪll our content is written fully by humans we do not publish AI writing.How to Securely Store Passwords in 2023: Best Secure Password Storage.Best Password Manager for Small Business.Online Storage or Online Backup: What's The Difference?. ![]()
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